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Subject: Question on Sources and Interpretations

There is a point about our metamodel that I am a little confused on.

It's my understanding that some "rule contexts" are themselves legal statements. So it seems to me that in such a case the rule context itself may have sources, independent of the sources of the legal text it is interpreting. I'm not sure if the other properties of legal rules - temporal characteristics, authority, jurisdication- would also apply. If an interpretation is based on a legally-binding rule of interpretation that is then anulled, wouldn't this have effects on the validity of this interpretation?

So it seems to me we need to carefully distinguish between properties that the rule context *applies* to the text to produced the rule, and properties of the rule context itself.


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