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Subject: Re: [provision] Spec issue #11: ReferenceDefinition CanReferTo withouttargetID.


To keep it simple, I suggest that SchemaEntityRefType *require* targetID. 

That way, we never have to worry about an ambiguous reference to a 
schema entity.  (For the purposes of this discussion, it doesn't matter 
whether "targetID" is an attribute or an element.)

Gary P Cole wrote:

> 11. What if a reference definition does not specify a targetID on the 
> canReferTo schema entity?
>
> In the spec's listTargets example, the listTargetsResponse contains 
> two targets.
> Within target2’s declaration of the Reference Capability for Person, 
> the provider declares that a Person on target2 may own an account on 
> target1. (That is, an instance of Person on target2 may use an "owns" 
> type of reference to refer to an instance of Account on target1.)
>
> <listTargetsResponse status=“success">
> ...
> <target targetID=“target2”>
> ...
> <capabilities>
> ...
> <capability identifier=”urn:oasis:names:tc:SPML:2.0:reference”>
> <appliesTo entityName=”Person”/>
> <referenceDefinition typeOfReference=”owns”/>
> <schemaEntity entityName=”Person”/>
> <canReferTo entityName=”Account” targetID=“target1”/>
> </referenceDefinition>
> </capability>
> </capabilities>
> </target>
> </listTargetsResponse>
>
> SchemaEntityRefType doesn't yet contain a "targetID" element or 
> attribute, but it's supposed to. (That's XSD issue #65). It's been 
> proposed that targetID be optional in this context, but my opinion is 
> that it should be required.
>
> In the listTargetsResponse example above, what would it mean if the 
> provider omitted the targetID attribute of <canReferTo>? Would this be 
> an error (since target2 does not support Account), or would this mean 
> that an instance of Person on target2 may use the “owns” type of 
> reference refer to an instance of Account on any target?
>
>
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