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Subject: Re: [regrep] [RS Issue] Need clarification on comment on line 1410
Thinking in the abstract, if a target is deprecated is it also fair to assume references to it are deprecated? Possibly yes, possibly no. Imaginary Use case: User "bob" has been deprecated as part of a reorganization. "bob" has been given 3 months to transition his role to someone else ("mary"), and during that three months he shall continue in his job. If Association to process objects define "bob"'s position, should those associations be deprecated? I don't think so. Why? Because those associations will need to be transitioned to "mary". Maybe this needs to be an optional flag on the deprecate request. Duane Nickull wrote: > Goran: > > That probably depends on the type of reference. If it is a reference > (association) of "supercedes", it probably should not be deprecated. > On the other hand, if it is a reference as "includes", that is another > matter. > > I guess this is a wake up call for a good set of user guides ;-) > > Duane > > Goran Zugic wrote: > >> I like Duane's idea as well. However, I also think that in a such >> case we should also (automatically) deprecate all objects that >> reference the deprecated object. For example, it doesn't make sense >> to keep an Association with a "valid" status (approved) that >> references a deprecated object. It raises another question related to >> the RS specs. What is the reason that we don't deprecate objects >> that reference objects that were deprecated after their creation? > > > <SNIP> >
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