Re: SV: [ubl-dev] does BasePrice have a meaning?!?!?!?!?!?

[David Lyon <david.lyon@computergrid.net>]

On Tue, 26 Apr 2005 6:00 pm, Bryan Rasmussen wrote:
> I find that worrisome because I suppose that there could be cases in which
> the discount is known at the time of the advertisement of the item and
> times when it is only known at the time of the invoicing of the item.
> Now in a case where a suit cost $1000 but has been discounted to $900 and
> is thus advertised as costing $900 with the information, big price-slashing
> sale, then yes I would assume that $900 is the base price of that suit
> because after all it is the $900 I will be putting in my order. But in a
> case where I make an order of $1000 before the sale goes into affect, the
> order is received after the sale goes into affect, then the base price is
> $1000 and the discount is $100.
>
> This is of course a trivial example, I suppose that there are non-trivial
> examples in which we will want to know rebates and so forth for various
> accounting, tax purposes. all dependent on the accounting standards used,
> tax rules for our country.

It's not trivial - it happens all the time.

I think Kees is not suggesting that the base-price term be changed, just that 
descripton for base price include "advertised" or "published".

That might be possible, but one problem is:

 - in Canada, advertised prices don't include tax. Tax 
   must be added. Base prices are published/advertised.

 - in Australia, advertised prices already include tax. Base 
   price are not allowed to be advertised (by law) as all
   prices must include the tax component.

Get's a little confusing I know....

But that is the basic problem that "base-price" element solves.

Regards

David



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